
Originally Posted by
mannyamador
Since you are the one claiming there is a correlation, YOU must provide the evidence.
Ok, i can take the challenge...and to make it worth your while, i came up w/ a graph to show you (and to all istoryans).

Source: Basic data come from the 1997, 2000 and 2003 FIES of the NSO.
Note: The values were computed using a Stata do-file for computing FGT measures. Except for the weights, the sampling design was not used to generate the values, in an attempt to facilitate comparability of the figures.
AND I HAVE NOT EVEN STARTED W/ THE COEFFICIENTS YET! But by just looking visually at the graphs, X and Y seems to show a linear trend. it shows that poverty incidence and poverty gap tends to increase as family size increases.
and to show the coefficients are not zero, here is an illustration from wiki:
The trend in my graph is also similar w/ family size against poverty vulnerability and inversely against per capita expenditures on education and medical needs.
Even as it has not been established beyond reasonable doubt which between poverty and family size is the cause and which is the effect, the strong correlation between the two variables is unmistakably clear. Statistics also very convincingly point to the importance of education in addressing poverty reduction.
Quod Erat Demonstrandum!!!
WHO IS LYING NOW MANNYBOY!!! Your claim that there is zero correlation? or mine that says otherwise?