Second Look on Islam

[m1000]

---

this is quite long, i hope you won't be selective in what you'll be reading


Jews did not believe in Jesus, that was the reason he was stoned and crucified because the Jews believed Jesus committed blasphemy, by saying He is the Son of God. Many Jews today are still waiting for the messiah to come.


Jesus (PHUH) claims to be God:

YHVH comes from the Hebrew verb "to be" and is the special name that God revealed to Moses at the burning bush. "And God said to Moses, 'I AM WHO I AM; and He said, thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, I AM has sent me to you... this is My eternal name, and this is how I am to be recalled for all generations'" (Exodus 3:14-15).

In John 8:56-9, Jesus presents himself as the "I AM." When challenged by some Jewish leaders regarding His claim of seeing Abraham (who lived some 2000 years earlier), Jesus replied, "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I AM." Those Jewish leaders understood that Jesus was claiming to be YHVH. This is clearly established when they tried to stone Him to death for what they considered blasphemy under Jewish Law. In Romans 10:9, Paul declares, "if you confess with your mouth Yeshua as LORD... you shall be saved." Immediately thereafter, in Romans 10:13, Paul backs up this declaration by quoting the Old Testament, "Whoever will call upon the name of the LORD (YHVH) will be saved" (Joel 2:32). Calling on Yeshua (Jesus) as Lord is the same as calling Him YHVH, because Yeshua (Jesus) is YHVH (LORD), the Messiah foretold throughout the entire Old Testament.

I Believe in Jesus Christ because hundreds of prophecies from the old testaments came into being through Him. What about Mohammed what prophecy from the bible that can validate him… and what miracle did mohammed performed, other than he wrote the Quran… foremost, before we believe in Quran as the last say of God and mohammed as a prophet…do you believe that the Quran is far MORE SUPERIOR than the 66 books of the bible. why? and Do you believe that God entrusted the Bible to the Jews, and that the Jews broke it?

for me lang ha, he was not a prophet, considering he was not all that righteous. the old testament prophets and the apostles, did not kill anyone for the sake of God, sila noon gi patay... i've also read and seen a video, that mohammed was possess by some short of spirit na dili gikan kay Allah, he was saying things that even he did not understand, and was he weeping because of that. Is it also true that in Quran the father of Mary (earthy mother of Jesus) was Moses? I’ve seen a video about it from a former imam. Just an innocent inquiry…



it’s interesting to note that the apostles Peter, John, and Paul… are mentioned in Quran Sakto bah mr. malic?

Colossians 1:15-18 (Jesus as the Creator)

15 Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:
16 For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him:
17 And he is before all things, and by him all things consist.
18 And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence.

Colossians 2:9

9 For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form,

John 1:1,14 and 18 (the divinity of Christ)

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God…. The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth… No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only, who is at the Father’s side, has made him known

-these verse teach us that Jesus Christ, as the eternal Word, is God. He became man, yet they beheld His glory as the only Son of His kind. Verse 18. He is called God who made known the Father.


Trinity
"EL" is another name used for God in the Bible (singular), showing up about 200 times in the Old Testament. El is the simple form arising from Elohim, and is often combined with other words for descriptive emphasis.

"ELOHIM" (or Elohay) is the first name for God found in the Bible, and it's used throughout the Old Testament over 2,300 times. Elohim comes from the Hebrew root meaning "strength" or "power", and has the unusual characteristic of being plural in form.

Genesis 1:26
26And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.

Genesis 3:20-24 (King James Version) ( the fall of Adam and Eve)

22And the LORD God said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever:

Genesis 11:7 (King James Version) –(from the story of tower of babel)
7Go to, let us go down, and there confound their language, that they may not understand one another's speech.

[necrotic freak]

Interesting point of view.

(vs 30)---I and the Father are one? Yes, one in purpose.

(Verse 33)--- The jews MISTAKENLY took the previous verse(vs 30) to mean that He is also God

Jesus then explained the context...contnue to the next verses pls dont stop at 30 and be at the same footing as the jews who mistakenly took Jesus as The God.

(verses 34-36) whats the context? Jesus said,that according to scriptures that anyone who speaks for HIM(God) can be called god(vs35---So God calls them gods to whom He spoke, and the Scripture cannot be set aside.) Then Jesus continued and said (vs36---Do you then accuse of blasphemy Him whom the Father has consecrated and sent into the world, because He said,'I am the Son of God'?)

Therefore its not a blasphemy to call himself a god because the scripture allows it. But the context of the word god there is not God as in YWHV but just god. And since God has one purpose and Jesus was commanded to do the Father's will in that since they are one.


My brother you took John 14:5-14 literally.

Here is a verse `You have never seen God' (John 5:37).

Are you saying then by quoting Jn14:5-14 to mean that the people who was with Jesus specially Phillip had seen God? if that is so then obviously your bible is inconsistent.

Never in the Bible did Jesus said out from his own mouth that He is God,well at least according to my knowledge, if you have a verse that shows unequivocally where Jesus said that i am God then i ask you to post it.


Another point...

The Father is God, Jesus is God? you have two Gods then. According to the christian doctrine of trinity ,each is a person, each has its own will? how can 2 persons with different will be ONE?

If one of the identical triplet committed a murder would that mean that all of them have committed the murder? No,of course. why? because the 3 are different persons. But in Trinity you have the Father as a person,Jesus as a person, Holy spirit as a person but these 3 persons are ONE,hmm? Is that english? Sounds english to me. In english,are 3 persons be one? NO.

Jesus was circumsized, God got circumsized? God forbid.

There is only one God and God can not be circumsized,if you know what i mean. In Islam we call it Tauhid or tawheed.


Salam!

you wouldnt understand.. better be in Islam nalang...

[necrotic freak]

Yes wow, amazing or was it shocking?

hmm.. well, its an amazing myth.

[Hellblazer 2.1]

Yes I worked here in Kingdom of Saudi Arabia.

that time i was urinating on flat bowl elevated in the floor "squat toilet", even if my urine splashes on the bowl there's no instance that their butt touches the bowl.



well, anyway there's no "Mushkella" with me. I respect them co'z they are muslims and I'm here in their country.

but still I'm standing while I pee but now I'm closing the door so that they can't notice.. hehehe!
really I can't imagine sitting during a pee..hehehe!

sadik bai,

pagdalag chicken kabsa inig uli nimo. hehehe. ('c',)

[Malic]

this is quite long, i hope you won't be selective in what you'll be reading


Jews did not believe in Jesus, that was the reason he was stoned and crucified because the Jews believed Jesus committed blasphemy, by saying He is the Son of God. Many Jews today are still waiting for the messiah to come.


Jesus (PHUH) claims to be God:

YHVH comes from the Hebrew verb "to be" and is the special name that God revealed to Moses at the burning bush. "And God said to Moses, 'I AM WHO I AM; and He said, thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, I AM has sent me to you... this is My eternal name, and this is how I am to be recalled for all generations'" (Exodus 3:14-15).

In John 8:56-9, Jesus presents himself as the "I AM." When challenged by some Jewish leaders regarding His claim of seeing Abraham (who lived some 2000 years earlier), Jesus replied, "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I AM." Those Jewish leaders understood that Jesus was claiming to be YHVH. This is clearly established when they tried to stone Him to death for what they considered blasphemy under Jewish Law. In Romans 10:9, Paul declares, "if you confess with your mouth Yeshua as LORD... you shall be saved." Immediately thereafter, in Romans 10:13, Paul backs up this declaration by quoting the Old Testament, "Whoever will call upon the name of the LORD (YHVH) will be saved" (Joel 2:32). Calling on Yeshua (Jesus) as Lord is the same as calling Him YHVH, because Yeshua (Jesus) is YHVH (LORD), the Messiah foretold throughout the entire Old Testament.

I Believe in Jesus Christ because hundreds of prophecies from the old testaments came into being through Him. What about Mohammed what prophecy from the bible that can validate him… and what miracle did mohammed performed, other than he wrote the Quran… foremost, before we believe in Quran as the last say of God and mohammed as a prophet…do you believe that the Quran is far MORE SUPERIOR than the 66 books of the bible. why? and Do you believe that God entrusted the Bible to the Jews, and that the Jews broke it?

for me lang ha, he was not a prophet, considering he was not all that righteous. the old testament prophets and the apostles, did not kill anyone for the sake of God, sila noon gi patay... i've also read and seen a video, that mohammed was possess by some short of spirit na dili gikan kay Allah, he was saying things that even he did not understand, and was he weeping because of that. Is it also true that in Quran the father of Mary (earthy mother of Jesus) was Moses? I’ve seen a video about it from a former imam. Just an innocent inquiry…



it’s interesting to note that the apostles Peter, John, and Paul… are mentioned in Quran Sakto bah mr. malic?

Colossians 1:15-18 (Jesus as the Creator)

15 Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:
16 For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him:
17 And he is before all things, and by him all things consist.
18 And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence.

Colossians 2:9

9 For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form,

John 1:1,14 and 18 (the divinity of Christ)

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God…. The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth… No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only, who is at the Father’s side, has made him known

-these verse teach us that Jesus Christ, as the eternal Word, is God. He became man, yet they beheld His glory as the only Son of His kind. Verse 18. He is called God who made known the Father.


Trinity
"EL" is another name used for God in the Bible (singular), showing up about 200 times in the Old Testament. El is the simple form arising from Elohim, and is often combined with other words for descriptive emphasis.

"ELOHIM" (or Elohay) is the first name for God found in the Bible, and it's used throughout the Old Testament over 2,300 times. Elohim comes from the Hebrew root meaning "strength" or "power", and has the unusual characteristic of being plural in form.

Genesis 1:26
26And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.

Genesis 3:20-24 (King James Version) ( the fall of Adam and Eve)

22And the LORD God said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever:

Genesis 11:7 (King James Version) –(from the story of tower of babel)
7Go to, let us go down, and there confound their language, that they may not understand one another's speech.

What made you think that im being selective? LOLZ. imong huna huna cguro selective ko


My goodness, is this how you want to make a palusot? LOLZ.

The verses in Question,let me remind you is John10:30 AND i already gave you the context of the verse you quoted as "I and my father are one"

Then i already told you that the jews MISTAKENLY took verse30 to mean that Jesus(pbuh) is claiming to be God. With that i also gave the PROPER context of the verse. I told you to continue,dont stop at verse30, because in the next verses,Jesus(pbuh) said that "So God calls them gods to whom He spoke, and the Scripture cannot be set aside"<---kasabot ka ana sir? Then Jesus continued and He said' "Do you then accuse of blasphemy Him whom the Father has consecrated and sent into the world, because He said,'I am the Son of God'<----kana kasabot ka ana?

Thats the proper way to contextualised the stoning of Jesus. Jesus even said "Son of God" not GOD.

In effect sir Jesus said, dont stone me if i call myself the Son of God because even the scriptures say that we are all gods and those who proclaim HIS message can also be called god. thats the context of the term Son of God. Anyone who proclaims the message of God can be called god not only jesus(pbuh)


Now the funny part...

you want to palusot John10 to suit your idea so you quoted John 8:56-9,

Before Abraham was I AM?my friend as ive saID the jews MIsunderstood the context of Jesus claims : "iam" and "Son of God". The proof of that is in John 10:34-36,where he explained to the jews the meaning of his claims. When jesus used the word iam we was just using it to identify himself with God. But the jews misintepreted its context just like you now. The word "I AM" is used 72 times in the Hebrew Bible by a number of Prophets including David, Moses, etc.


Not all christian scholars agree that Jesus' statements I Am are direct claims to Yahweh. This is based primarily on the fact that the phrase "I AM WHO I AM" can legitimately be translated as "I WILL BE WHAT I WILL BE." This is due to the verb from which the phrase stems.


The Hebrew phrase ehyeh asher ehyeh(the I AM in Exodus w/c you forcibly want to connect it to John and deceivingly represented it to mean as YHVH) is derived from the verb hayah, "will be." It is often given the following meanings in standard Hebrew Dictionaries: "was, come to pass, came, has been, has happened, become, pertained, better for thee."

Other meanings include:


to be, become, come to pass, exist, happen, fall out

1a) to happen, fall out, occur, take place, come about, come to pass
1b) to come about, come to pass
2) to come into being, become
2a) to arise, appear, come
2b) to become

WARNING.pls dont use YHVH for the IAM ni John becuase in Greek the "IAM" in John was not written as YHVH. This is a very malicious way of trying to connect the word IAM to Yahweh. As ive said the word IAM in the new testament was not written as YHVH. lets continue...


2b1) to become
2b3) to be instituted, be established
3) to be
3a) to exist, be in existence
3b) to abide, remain, continue (with word of place or time)
3c) to stand, lie, be in, be at, be situated (with word of locality)
3d) to accompany, be with "


See my friend it can mean a lot of things. Thas why i asked you to provide me a unequivocal statement from Jesus,coming from his own mouth where He said that I AM GOD. not "iam" cos it can mean a lot of things. Not son of God because in the bible Jesus is not the only one whom God calls as Son of God. But I AM GOD, provide one pls. and dont use the mistake of the jews to prove that Jesus is god. Jesus rebuked them for that and gave them the proper cntext found in verses 34-36 in john 10.

-----------------------------

You believed in jesus because of the prophecies being fulfilled? okay good. But i wonder why the scholars of JUdaism dili motoo niya. kinsa kaha mas intellectual ikaw or sila?

Prophecies about Muhammad? bisan muhatag ko sir dili ghapon nimo dawatun.

prophecies from the bible for Muhammad(pbuh)? what bible? your bible w/c dont contain the original copy. Where revisions upon revisions were made? where selected by few people to be the word of God and rejected other scriptures. Mas motoo cguro ko kung si Jesus pa ang nagbuhat ana. In other words sir,you cant make the bible as authority to validate The Prophet Muhammad's prophetic office.


sir daghana sa imo pangutana nga dili na related sa topic so dili lang nako tubagon ha.


In the beginning was God ...? this will take long if i am going to answer this one. kapoyan naka mobasa so unahon sa nako ang katong gamay ra ug tubag ha. i will answer this on my next post,cos lunch is coming.


let me quote you..."for me lang ha, he was not a prophet, considering he was not all that righteous. the old testament prophets and the apostles, did not kill anyone for the sake of God,"<----- Are you soooooooooo sure, i mean that some prophets didnt kill anyone for the sake of God. tsk tsk!


i will post again. Ayaw lang sa tubag sir kay mag overlap nya ang topic. wait for my next post. Break muna because its lunch time.

[Malic]

back from lunch...

lets talk about Elohim.

let me give you a visual of the letters and the word...

SH’MA YISRAEL YAHWEH ELOHENU YAHWEH ECHAD
Hear, Israel! Yahweh our-Elohim, Yahweh One

I will show you two reliable data made by scholars.

1) Is elohim plural? Yes it is, it is plural in FORM but not in sense.

take note...if it was plural in sense then it should be translated as Gods but we dont see that instead it is translated as God.


"All languages make a distinction between the form and the sense of a word. In English, the word "put" has one form. This form is made up of three specific letters laid out in a particular order, but the senses of that form are many. "Put" may mean the act of placing in a particular location (in the present tense). It may mean the act of having already placed something in a particular location (in the past tense). It may mean an entirely different kind of act, such as a ship's sailing into a port or harbor. Moreover, "put" can take a singular construction or a plural one (he put, or they put). The person who knows English is not confused when the same form is used with different senses. Neither is the Hebrew speaker confused by the one form and the different senses of elohim."--- Worldwide church of God


In other words, tho it is in plural form but its nature really depends on its context. Now go back to the statement i made above. "Hear o Israel the Lord our God is ONE God." but why is it in plural form?

but before that let me ask you a question,if you think that elohim in nature is plural,would that mean that GOD is composed of family of divine beings? The jews would say,its blasphemy.

why is it plural in form?

the next explantion comes...

2) there are two kinds of plural in arabic and hebrew.

a. plural in numbers
b. plural in respect

In other words, If you give a higher respect or if anyone deserves a higher respect you used a plural form. In this context since Yahweh is God and He deserves the highest praise,it is but right to call declare Him as Elohim. Dont get confuse with Yahweh and elohim. The name of God is YAHWEH, elohim is his title.

to show great respect the jews would use a plural form.



NOw...

let me show you...a verse that will show elohim in a different context,also a great example to give you what i meant by plural in form but not in sense.

In Exodus 4:16, Moses is told that Aaron would be to him for a mouth, while he would be for a god (elohim) to Aaron. The form of elohim is plural, yet Moses was clearly one person — not a group or family of beings , remember my question? also look Exodus 7:1, where Moses is told that he would be like elohim to Pharaoh.


Again...your trinity has no place in the bible,why? because later chrsitians invented it.

[Malic]

Here are another points about the statement in John 8:58.

Before Abraham was I am?

The phrase "I AM" in greek is "eigo eimi".

does the use of "ego eimi" in Jn8:58 automatically connects Jesus to Yahweh the IAM of Exodus w/c you misrepresented as YHVH in your post,as if to m ake it appear that the word for IAM in John is really YHVH.


Several individuals aside from Yahshua used "ego eimi" as well. In Lu.1:19, the angel Gabriel said, "Ego eimi Gabriel." In Jn.9: 9, the blind man whose sight was restored by Yahshua said, "Ego eimi." In Acts 10:21, Peter said, "Behold, ego eimi (I am) he whom ye seek." Obviously, the mere use of "ego eimi" does not equate one to the "I Am" of Ex.3:14. But perhaps the Savior's use of it was somehow different.


see my previous post for other explanation.

[Malic]

As for John 1:1 " In the beginning was the word,and the word was with god,and the word was god"


There are actually two acceptable translation for these.

1) stated above--- suggests that Christ (the Logos) is God himself.

2) In the beginning was the word,and the word was with god,and the word was a god"---suggests that Christ (the Logos) is a god (i.e., NOT God himself, but one like God)


I'll go for number 2. why? because its an honest translation.


the translator of the former didnt include the indefinite article of the english word to show accurate translation from Greek to english. BUT did include in other verses,showing bias and a very dishonest meaning on the whole verse.


taas taas ni nga explanation sir.

In the greek language w/c the N.T. was written,have no indefinite article only definite article. So to show INDEFINITENESS a greek writer will not write the DEFINITE article.

like...

I am told that in the english language there are words that show definiteness and indefiniteness. The word "THE" shows definiteness while the word "a" shows indefiniteness. correct me if im wrong.

a man married a woman--- the author here has no idea who this man and woman is

the man married a woman--- the author knows not neccessarily in a pesonal way but he knows the man
but the author doesnt know the woman.

the man married the woman--- here the author knows both of them.


In the greek language there is no word to show indefiniteness. So in order to suggest indefiniteness the author must not include the word that suggest definiteness.

here is a an exaMPle of how greek sounds when it is translated word for word in english...

man married woman---here the author has no idea of who these people are (notice for greek language to show indefiniteness they will simply exclude the definite article, No "a")

The man married woman--- here the author knows the man but doesnt knw who the woman is.

man married the woman---here the author knows the woman but not the man.
the man married the woman--- here the author knows both of them.


*the second line sounds awkward and incomplete to those who are good in english. Now to have an honest english translation the english translator must add the article "a",so it becomes the man married "a" woman. Now the second line is complete and the meaning is properly conveyed. Its not "the woman" whom the author knew but just a woman,a woman whom the author knew not.


John 1:1 in greek is translated literally in english as...

In beginning was THE word and THE word was with THE god and (?) god was the word.

(A word for word literla trnaslation for these in english should be..."In beginng was the word and the word was with the god and a god was the word)

See the question mark? it shows indefiniteness.

Notice that there is no definite article before "god" Therefore, the Greek writer (as in John 1:1) intended indefiniteness, which indefiniteness MUST be conveyed in English via an indefinite article. (the article "a"). but in some cases Translators have ROUTINELY demonstrated that they CLEARLY understand this by correctly translating this phrase as follows:

Acts 28 relate the apostle Paul's encounter with a venomous snake on the island of Malta. He is bitten by the snake, and the Maltese residents present at the time expect that Paul will surely die. When he does not die, then according to most translations, the residents "began saying that he was (a) god."

in the original greek there was no definite article before the word god but these translators that translated "and the word was god" put the letter "a" suggesting indefiniteness and correctly so,they must.

But in john 1:1 they seem to forget to apply this same principle.


So i say...John 1:1 according to your bible is wrongly translated.


Again here is a word for word literal translation from greek to english...

In beginning(no THE) was the word and the word was the god and god was the word.

since you need to show indefiniteness to where the greek text shows indefiniteness then the last remaining phrase should be translated as...and "a" god was the word.

now to translate it to a better english...it should sound like...

In the beginning was the word and the word was with god and a god was the word.

In other words...the word is a different entity here. This word was WITH god and the word was a god.

"a god" suggest a lesser being in compare to "THE God".

one last thing the word theos or god can also be trnaslated as divine.


Now again show me a verse coming from the mouth of Jesus where he said exclusively and unequivocally that he is GOD, or I AM GOD. naa cguro Son of god but not I AM GOD.

sa kadugay ni Jesus cyaro wa jud siya mo angkon from his own mouth nga I AM GOD. Pero wala jud,nganu man? because He is not god. but Son of god ra.

later on na lang specially si paul iyang gihimo ug deity si Jesus then gi dawat pod sa sunod nga generations.

[m1000]

As for John 1:1 " In the beginning was the word,and the word was with god,and the word was god"


There are actually two acceptable translation for these.

1) stated above--- suggests that Christ (the Logos) is God himself.

2) In the beginning was the word,and the word was with god,and the word was a god"---suggests that Christ (the Logos) is a god (i.e., NOT God himself, but one like God)


I'll go for number 2. why? because its an honest translation.


the translator of the former didnt include the indefinite article of the english word to show accurate translation from Greek to english. BUT did include in other verses,showing bias and a very dishonest meaning on the whole verse.


taas taas ni nga explanation sir.

In the greek language w/c the N.T. was written,have no indefinite article only definite article. So to show INDEFINITENESS a greek writer will not write the DEFINITE article.

like...

I am told that in the english language there are words that show definiteness and indefiniteness. The word "THE" shows definiteness while the word "a" shows indefiniteness. correct me if im wrong.

a man married a woman--- the author here has no idea who this man and woman is

the man married a woman--- the author knows not neccessarily in a pesonal way but he knows the man
but the author doesnt know the woman.

the man married the woman--- here the author knows both of them.


In the greek language there is no word to show indefiniteness. So in order to suggest indefiniteness the author must not include the word that suggest definiteness.

here is a an exaMPle of how greek sounds when it is translated word for word in english...

man married woman---here the author has no idea of who these people are (notice for greek language to show indefiniteness they will simply exclude the definite article, No "a")

The man married woman--- here the author knows the man but doesnt knw who the woman is.

man married the woman---here the author knows the woman but not the man.
the man married the woman--- here the author knows both of them.


*the second line sounds awkward and incomplete to those who are good in english. Now to have an honest english translation the english translator must add the article "a",so it becomes the man married "a" woman. Now the second line is complete and the meaning is properly conveyed. Its not "the woman" whom the author knew but just a woman,a woman whom the author knew not.


John 1:1 in greek is translated literally in english as...

In beginning was THE word and THE word was with THE god and (?) god was the word.

(A word for word literla trnaslation for these in english should be..."In beginng was the word and the word was with the god and a god was the word)

See the question mark? it shows indefiniteness.

Notice that there is no definite article before "god" Therefore, the Greek writer (as in John 1:1) intended indefiniteness, which indefiniteness MUST be conveyed in English via an indefinite article. (the article "a"). but in some cases Translators have ROUTINELY demonstrated that they CLEARLY understand this by correctly translating this phrase as follows:

Acts 28 relate the apostle Paul's encounter with a venomous snake on the island of Malta. He is bitten by the snake, and the Maltese residents present at the time expect that Paul will surely die. When he does not die, then according to most translations, the residents "began saying that he was (a) god."

in the original greek there was no definite article before the word god but these translators that translated "and the word was god" put the letter "a" suggesting indefiniteness and correctly so,they must.

But in john 1:1 they seem to forget to apply this same principle.


So i say...John 1:1 according to your bible is wrongly translated.


Again here is a word for word literal translation from greek to english...

In beginning(no THE) was the word and the word was the god and god was the word.

since you need to show indefiniteness to where the greek text shows indefiniteness then the last remaining phrase should be translated as...and "a" god was the word.

now to translate it to a better english...it should sound like...

In the beginning was the word and the word was with god and a god was the word.

In other words...the word is a different entity here. This word was WITH god and the word was a god.

"a god" suggest a lesser being in compare to "THE God".

one last thing the word theos or god can also be trnaslated as divine.


Now again show me a verse coming from the mouth of Jesus where he said exclusively and unequivocally that he is GOD, or I AM GOD. naa cguro Son of god but not I AM GOD.

sa kadugay ni Jesus cyaro wa jud siya mo angkon from his own mouth nga I AM GOD. Pero wala jud,nganu man? because He is not god. but Son of god ra.

later on na lang specially si paul iyang gihimo ug deity si Jesus then gi dawat pod sa sunod nga generations.

wahhhh ikaw sad wala kasabot sir....heheh sir malic, dili ra ikaw akong gi ingnan ayaw pag selective og reading, kay dili ra man sad ikaw ang mo basa diri bidah? so sa general to, dili ikaw lang. Ako di ko scholar di sad ko bright, amo noon Pastor scholar hehehe. He knows Greek and Hebrew well. panagsa ra na sa Cebu/philippines. Thank God, I’ve found this church

[m1000]

you want to palusot John10 to suit your idea so you quoted John 8:56-9,

Then i already told you that the jews MISTAKENLY took verse30 to mean that Jesus(pbuh) is claiming to be God. With that i also gave the PROPER context of the verse. I told you to continue,dont stop at verse30, because in the next verses,Jesus(pbuh) said that "So God calls them gods to whom He spoke, and the Scripture cannot be set aside"<---kasabot ka ana sir? Then Jesus continued and He said' "Do you then accuse of blasphemy Him whom the Father has consecrated and sent into the world, because He said,'I am the Son of God'<----kana kasabot ka ana?
Before Abraham was I AM?my friend as ive saID the jews MIsunderstood the context of Jesus claims : "iam" and "Son of God". The proof of that is in John 10:34-36,where he explained to the jews the meaning of his claims. When jesus used the word iam we was just using it to identify himself with God. But the jews misintepreted its context just like you now. The word "I AM" is used 72 times in the Hebrew Bible by a number of Prophets including David, Moses, etc.



unsa palosot bah oi read it honestly. Jesus said He was before Abraham. How’s that? Abraham lived 2,000 years before Jesus became human. How about your palosot beh…. Your accusing me of palosot yet in your previous post you have this “CULTURAL DIFFERENCE.” Justifying *** between a 6 yr old and 56 yr old man. hehehe


Why would Jesus use I Am? Did you know that it's VERY sacred for the Jews? The Jews don't even mention that Name, that's how sacred it is to them... but, why would Jesus DARE to use it, rather than saying he is ONLY a prophet, Jesus would have at least the HIGHEST respect for that Name because His righteous or at least a prophet as you claim to be. None, of all books of the old testament would dare to use that Name for themselves. But why would Jesus Christ use it? Could Jesus Christ have no idea of what He was talking, that he recklessly use it? Another thing, Jesus claims to be the Son of God - "Son of"- is used among the ANCIENTS to refer to one who has the SAME NATURE. So meaning Jesus is God just as the Father is God. (John 10:30). If you say wala kasabot ang jews sauna, you mean to say mas kasabot paka sa CULTURE atong TYMA kay sa mga Jews og ni Jesus. You must be ancient. Hehehe that is why the Jews would either say that Jesus is a false prophet or He is God. Ana ra… ana ra sad na sa islam. Either you would claim Jesus is a false prophet or He is God.